2026 Updated Verified SK0-005 Downloadable Printable Exam Dumps [Q56-Q76]

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2026 Updated Verified SK0-005 Downloadable Printable Exam Dumps

The Ultimate CompTIA SK0-005 Dumps PDF Review

The CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification exam consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions, and candidates have 90 minutes to complete the exam. SK0-005 exam is available in English and Japanese and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center worldwide. Passing the exam requires a score of at least 750 on a scale of 100-900. Certified professionals are required to renew their certification every three years to ensure that their skills remain up-to-date with the latest industry trends and technologies.

The SK0-005 exam covers a wide range of topics, including server architecture, virtualization, cloud computing, automation, and scripting. It also includes new content related to cybersecurity, such as secure server deployment, incident response, and vulnerability management. SK0-005 exam is designed to ensure that candidates have the knowledge and skills needed to succeed in a variety of server-related roles, including server administrator, systems engineer, and IT manager.

NO.56 An administrator is receiving reports that users in a remote office are unable to log in to the domain. The network appears to be up between the sites, which are in different states. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

The user accounts are locked out

The NTP on the client side is misconfigured

MFA is not working

The wrong time zone was set in the remote office

A misconfigured NTP (Network Time Protocol) on the client side can cause authentication issues because Active Directory relies on accurate time synchronization between clients and domain controllers for security purposes. If the clocks are out of sync, even by a few minutes, it can prevent users from authenticating to the domain.
* NTP misconfiguration (Answer B): If the client machines have incorrect time settings, it can disrupt Kerberos-based authentication, which is time-sensitive.
* Locked user accounts (Option A): While it can prevent login, it would affect individual users rather than a whole office.
* MFA (Option C): Multi-factor authentication not working would typically cause a login issue but is less likely across an entire remote office.
* Wrong time zone (Option D): While incorrect time zones can cause confusion, they usually don’t prevent logins as long as the NTP server synchronizes the actual time correctly.
CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 2.4: Troubleshoot common server problems.

NO.57 Which of the following techniques can be configured on a server for network redundancy?

Clustering

Vitalizing

Cloning

Teaming

Explanation
Teaming is a technique that can be configured on a server for network redundancy. Teaming involves combining two or more network adapters into a single logical unit that acts as one network interface. This way, if one network adapter fails, another one can take over without disrupting network connectivity. Teaming can also improve network performance by load balancing traffic across multiple network adapters. Clustering is a technique that involves grouping two or more servers together to act as one system for high availability and fault tolerance. Virtualizing is a technique that involves creating multiple virtual machines on a single physical server to optimize resource utilization and flexibility. Cloning is a technique that involves creating an exact copy of a server’s configuration and data for backup or migration purposes. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/nic-teaming
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/19588/clustering
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4790/virtualization
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4776/cloning

NO.58 Which of the following are measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs? (Select TWO).

Restore the data from backup.

Disclose the incident.

Disable unnecessary ports.

Run an antivirus scan.

Identify the exploited vulnerability.

Move the data to a different location.

Restoring from backup is unnecessary here as we dont know what exactly the breach affected.
Disclose incident is AFTER all other steps have been taken. The question states WHEN a data breach occurs.
Move the data to another location … same issue. What data. Breach scope needs to be identified.
Identify the exploited vulnerability — definitely
Disable ports and running antivirus scan between these two… antivirus should already have been running and this wasn’t exactly a virus. So disable unnecessary ports is the only other option that makes any sense. Although this should have been done before this point. What should happen is that you remove the affected systems from the network but do NOT shut them off.
https://www.ftc.gov/business-guidance/resources/data-breach-response-guide-business

NO.59 A server administrator added a new drive to a server. However, the drive is not showing up as available. Which of the following does the administrator need to do to make the drive available?

Partition the drive.

Create a new disk quota.

Configure the drive as dynamic.

Set the compression.

NO.60 A technician is attempting to resolve an issue with a file server that is unable to download a file Given the following output:

Which of the following would best allow this file to be read?

chown

sestatus

setenforce

getenforce

chmod

The given output in the image indicates that the file is present, but the permissions may not allow it to be read.
The output indicates ‘-rw——-‘, which means that the file is set to be readable and writable by the owner only, with no permissions for group or others. To allow the file to be read by users other than the owner, the file’s permissions will need to be changed. The chmod (change mode) command is used to change the file’s permissions in Linux. For example, chmod 644 file would change the permissions of the file to be readable by everyone and writable by the owner, which is typically what’s required for a file server. It is always recommended to apply the least permissive settings that still allow the required operation to maintain security.

NO.61 Which of the following backup types should be chosen for database servers?

Differential

Incremental

Synthetic full

Open file

A synthetic full backup is a type of backup that combines a full backup with one or more incremental backups to create a new full backup without accessing the source data. This type of backup is suitable for database servers, as it reduces the backup window, minimizes the impact on the server performance, and provides faster recovery time. Verified Reference: [Synthetic Full Backup]

NO.62 Hosting data in different regional locations but not moving it for long periods of time describes:

a cold site.

data at rest.

on-site retention.

off-site storage.

Explanation
Data at rest refers to data that is stored in a persistent state on any device or media, such as hard drives, tapes, or cloud storage. Data at rest does not move for long periods of time unless it is accessed or modified by authorized users or applications. A cold site (A) is a backup location that has minimal or no equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. On-site retention is a policy of keeping backup data on premises for a certain period of time before transferring it to an off-site location. Off-site storage (D) is a method of storing backup data in a remote location that is physically or logically separated from the primary site. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-atrest
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/144/cold-site
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/backup/onsite-offsite-backup.html
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24195/offsite-storage

NO.63 A server administrator has connected a new server to the network. During testing, the administrator discovers the server is not reachable via server but can be accessed by IP address. Which of the following steps should the server administrator take NEXT? (Select TWO).

Check the default gateway.

Check the route tables.

Check the hosts file.

Check the DNS server.

Run the ping command.

Run the tracert command

NO.64 An administrator is configuring a server that will host a high-performance financial application. Which of the following disk types will serve this purpose?

SAS SSD

SATA SSD

SAS drive with 10000rpm

SATA drive with 15000rpm

Reference:
https://www.hp.com/us-en/shop/tech-takes/sas-vs-sata

NO.65 A technician is checking a server rack. Upon entering the room, the technician notices the tans on a particular server in the rack are running at high speeds. This is the only server in the rack that is experiencing this behavior. The ambient temperature in the room appears to be normal. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the fans in that server are operating at full speed?

The server is In the process of shutting down, so fan speed operations have been defaulted to high.

An incorrect fan size was inserted into the server, and the server has had to Increase the fan speed to compensate.

A fan failure has occurred, and the other fans have increased speed to compensate.

The server is utilizing more memory than the other servers, so it has increased the fans to compensate.

This is the most likely reason why the fans in that server are operating at full speed while the ambient temperature in the room is normal and the other servers in the rack are not experiencing this behavior. A fan failure is a situation where one or more fans in a server stop working or malfunction due to wear and tear, dust, or other factors. This can cause overheating and performance issues on the server. To prevent this, most servers have a fan redundancy feature that allows the other fans to increase their speed and airflow to compensate for the failed fan and maintain a safe temperature level. The server is not likely to be in the process of shutting down, as this would not cause the fans to run at high speeds. An incorrect fan size is not likely to be inserted into the server, as most fans are standardized and compatible with the server chassis and motherboard. The server is not likely to be utilizing more memory than the other servers, as this would not cause a significant increase in temperature or fan speed. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/303282
/how-to-manage-your-pcs-fans-for-optimal-airflow-and-cooling/ https://www.howtogeek.com/174288/how-to- tell-if-your-computer-is-overheating-and-what-to-do-about-it/

NO.66 An administrator is configuring a new server for use as a database server. It will have two mirrored drives to hold the operating system, and there will be three drive bays remaining for storage Which of the following RAID levels will yield the BEST combination of available space and redundancy?

RAID

RAID 1

RAIDS

RAID 10

Explanation
RAID 10 is the RAID level that will yield the best combination of available space and redundancy when configuring a new server for use as a database server with two mirrored drives for the operating system and three drive bays remaining for storage. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 10 provides high performance, fault tolerance, and fast recovery, but it reduces storage capacity by half. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 1 is a RAID configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 5 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive’s worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/
https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/

NO.67 A technician learns users are unable to tog in to a Linux server with known-working LDAP credentials. The technician logs in to the server with a local account and confirms the system is functional can communicate over the network, and is configured correctly However, the server log has entries regarding Kerberos errors.
Which of the following is the MOST likely source of the issue?

A local firewall is blocking authentication requests.

The users have expired passwords

The system clock is off by more than five minutes

The server has no access to the LDAP host

Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that uses tickets to allow clients and servers to prove their identity to each other. Kerberos relies on accurate time synchronization between the parties involved, as the tickets have expiration dates and timestamps. If the system clock of a Linux server is off by more than five minutes from the LDAP server or the domain controller, the Kerberos authentication will fail and generate errors. A local firewall is unlikely to block authentication requests if the server can communicate over the network and is configured correctly. The users’ passwords are not relevant if they are known-working LDAP credentials. The server has access to the LDAP host if it can communicate over the network and is configured correctly. References:
* https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html
/identity_management_guide/kerberos_errors
* https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/aix/7.2?topic=authentication-kerberos-time-synchronization

NO.68 A technician is connecting a server’s secondary NIC to a separate network. The technician connects the cable to the switch but then does not see any link lights on the NIC. The technician confirms there is nothing wrong on the network or with the physical connection. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?

Restart the server

Configure the network on the server

Enable the port on the server

Check the DHCP configuration

Explanation
The next thing that the technician should perform is to enable the port on the server. A port is a logical endpoint that identifies a specific service or application on a network device. A port can be enabled or disabled depending on whether the service or application is running or not. If a port is disabled on a server, it means that the server cannot send or receive any network traffic on that port, which can prevent communication with other devices or services that use that port. In this case, if port 389 is disabled on the server, it means that the server cannot use LDAP to access or modify directory services over a network. To resolve this issue, the technician should enable port 389 on the server using commands such as netsh or iptables.

NO.69 A server technician installs a new NIC on a server and configures the NIC for IP connectivity. The technician then tests the connection using the ping command. Given the following partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands:

Which of the following caused the issue?

Duplicate IP address

Incorrect default gateway

DHCP misconfiguration

Incorrect routing table

NO.70 Which of the following is the MOST secure method to access servers located in remote branch offices?

Use an MFA out-of-band solution

Use a Telnet connection

Use a password complexity policy

Use a role-based access policy

MFA for the entire network and also to access a remote server.
Some examples of out-of-band authentication (when paired with a typical online login) include:
– Push notifications sent to a mobile device
– QR codes with encrypted transaction data
– Biometric readers for fingerprint scans or facial recognition
– Phone calls for voice authentication

NO.71 An administrator discovers a Bash script file has the following permissions set in octal notation;
777
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate command to ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script?

chmod go-rw>:

chmod u=rwx

chmod u+wx

chmod g-rwx

chmod is a command-line tool that changes the permissions of files and directories in Linux and Unix systems. chmod go-rwx means to remove read, write, and execute permissions for group and other users from a file or directory. This can ensure only the root user can modify and execute the script, since root user has full access to all files and directories regardless of their permissions. References: https://linux.die.net/man/1/chmod

NO.72 Which of me following BEST describes a disaster recovery site with a target storage array that receives replication traffic and servers that are only powered on In the event of a disaster?

Cloud

Cold

Hot

Warm

A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has a target storage array that receives replication traffic and servers that are only powered on in the event of a disaster. A warm site is a compromise between a hot site and a cold site. A warm site has some equipment and data ready, but requires some configuration and restoration before resuming operations. A warm site is usually located in a different geographic area than the primary site and has redundant power, cooling, network, and security systems. A warm site is suitable for organizations that can tolerate some downtime and data loss in case of a disaster. A cloud site is a type of disaster recovery site that uses cloud-based resources and platforms to store backups and restore data and applications after a disaster. A cold site is a type of disaster recovery site that has only basic infrastructure and space available, but requires significant setup and installation before resuming operations. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has all the equipment and data ready to resume operations as soon as possible after a disaster. Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11172/hot-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11173/warm-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11174/cold-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/29836/cloud-recovery

NO.73 A systems administrator deployed a new web proxy server onto the network. The proxy server has two interfaces: the first is connected to an internal corporate firewall, and the second is connected to an internet-facing firewall. Many users at the company are reporting they are unable to access the Internet since the new proxy was introduced. Analyze the network diagram and the proxy server’s host routing table to resolve the Internet connectivity issues.
INSTRUCTIONS
Perform the following steps:
1. Click on the proxy server to display its routing table.
2. Modify the appropriate route entries to resolve the Internet connectivity issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

NO.74 An administrator has been asked to disable CPU hyperthreading on a server to satisfy a licensing issue. Which of the following best describes how the administrator will likely perform this action?

Use a RDP/VNC session.

Modify the startup configuration.

Use a PowerSheII/Bash script.

Use the BIOS/UEFI setup.

Explanation
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) setup is a program that allows users to configure the hardware settings of a computer, such as the CPU, memory, disk, and boot options. The BIOS/UEFI setup can be accessed by pressing a specific key (such as F2, F10, or Delete) during the boot process, before the operating system loads12.
One of the settings that can be changed in the BIOS/UEFI setup is the CPU hyperthreading option.
Hyperthreading is a technology that enables a single physical CPU core to execute two threads or tasks simultaneously, improving the performance and efficiency of multi-threaded applications. However, some software licenses may limit the number of CPU cores or threads that can be used, and therefore require disabling hyperthreading on the server34.
To disable hyperthreading on a server, the administrator will likely need to enter the BIOS/UEFI setup and navigate to the processor options menu. There, the administrator will find a setting for Intel Hyperthreading Technology or Hyperthreading Function, which can be enabled or disabled. The administrator will need to disable this setting and save the changes. This will turn off hyperthreading on the server and reduce the number of logical CPUs to match the number of physical cores5.

NO.75 Which of the following encryption methodologies would MOST likely be used to ensure encrypted data cannot be retrieved if a device is stolen?

End-to-end encryption

Encryption in transit

Encryption at rest

Public key encryption

Explanation
Encryption at rest is a type of encryption methodology that would most likely be used to ensure encrypted data cannot be retrieved if a device is stolen. Encryption at rest is a process of encrypting stored data on a device such as a hard drive, SSD, USB flash drive, or mobile device. This way, if the device is lost or stolen, the data cannot be accessed without the encryption key or password. Encryption at rest can be implemented using software tools such as BitLocker on Windows or FileVault on Mac OS, or hardware features such as self-encrypting drives or Trusted Platform Module chips. End-to-end encryption is a type of encryption methodology that ensures encrypted data cannot be intercepted or modified by third parties during transmission over a network. Encryption in transit is a type of encryption methodology that protects encrypted data while it is moving from one location to another over a network. Public key encryption is a type of encryption algorithm that uses a pair of keys: a public key that can be shared with anyone and a private key that is kept secret by the owner. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/196541/bitlocker-101-what-it-is-how-it-works-and-how-to-use-it/
https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individua
https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/https://www.howto

NO.76 A technician needs to restore data from a backup. The technician has these files in the backup inventory:

Which of the following backup types is being used if the file 01062020.bak requires another file to restore data?

Full

Incremental

Snapshot

Differential

An incremental backup only backs up files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. Therefore, an incremental backup file may require another file to restore data, depending on the sequence of backups. A full backup backs up all files and does not require any other file to restore data.
A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of data that does not depend on other files. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup and does not require any other file to restore data.

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2026 Updated Verified SK0-005 Downloadable Printable Exam Dumps [Q56-Q76]